MOV
11. ലേവ്യപൌരോഹിത്യത്താൽ സമ്പൂർണ്ണത വന്നെങ്കിൽ — അതിൻ കീഴല്ലോ ജനം ന്യായപ്രമാണം പ്രാപിച്ചതു — അഹരോന്റെ ക്രമപ്രകാരം എന്നു പറയാതെ മൽക്കീസേദെക്കിന്റെ ക്രമപ്രകാരം വേറൊരു പുരോഹിതൻ വരുവാൻ എന്തൊരാവശ്യം?
KJV
11. If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
KJVP
11. If G1487 G3303 therefore G3767 perfection G5050 were G2258 by G1223 the G3588 Levitical G3020 priesthood, G2420 ( for G1063 under G1909 it G846 the G3588 people G2992 received the law, G3549 ) what G5101 further G2089 need G5532 [was] [there] that another G2087 priest G2409 should rise G450 after G2596 the G3588 order G5010 of Melchizedek, G3198 and G2532 not G3756 be called G3004 after G2596 the G3588 order G5010 of Aaron G2 ?
YLT
11. If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?
ASV
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
WEB
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
ESV
11. Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron?
RV
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need {cf15i was there} that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
RSV
11. Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron?
NLT
11. So if the priesthood of Levi, on which the law was based, could have achieved the perfection God intended, why did God need to establish a different priesthood, with a priest in the order of Melchizedek instead of the order of Levi and Aaron?
NET
11. So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood— for on that basis the people received the law— what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron's order?
ERVEN
11. The people were given the law under the system of priests from the tribe of Levi. But no one could be made spiritually perfect through that system of priests. So there was a need for another priest to come. I mean a priest like Melchizedek, not Aaron.